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MRCOG Part 1
- MRCOG Part 1 Podcasts
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MRCOG Part 2 – Gynaecological Oncology EMQs (Updated 2026)

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Question 1 of 50

1. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate staging option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 62-year-old woman presents with a bleeding ulcerated vulval lesion. On examination, there is a 1.5 cm vulval tumour confined to the vulva and biopsy confirms a histological diagnosis of vulval squamous cell carcinoma with stromal invasion of 0.8 mm. There is no evidence of lymph node involvement or distant metastasis on MRI.
Preinvasive disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage II
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 2 of 50

2. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate staging option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 70-year-old woman presents with a cervical tumour and imaging confirms the presence of lung metastases.
Preinvasive disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB3
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIA1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIA2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 3 of 50

3. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate staging option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 55-year-old woman is diagnosed with endometrial cancer confined to the uterine corpus. Imaging shows less than 50% myometrial invasion, with no evidence of extrauterine spread.
Preinvasive disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA3
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IC
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIB1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIB2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC1i
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC1ii
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC2i
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC2ii
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVC
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 4 of 50

4. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate staging option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 67-year-old woman presents with endometrial cancer invading more than 50% of the myometrium but confined to the uterine corpus. Lymph nodes are negative for metastases.
Preinvasive disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA3
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IC
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIB1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIB2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC1i
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC1ii
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC2i
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC2ii
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVC
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 5 of 50

5. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate staging option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 70-year-old woman is diagnosed with endometrial cancer invading the serosa of the uterus. There is no evidence of nodal or distant metastases.
Preinvasive disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA3
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IC
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIB1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIB2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC1i
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC1ii
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC2i
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC2ii
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVC
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 6 of 50

6. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate staging option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 69-year-old woman with an endometrial carcinoma is found to have tumour deposits on the omentum and upper abdominal peritoneum, beyond the pelvis. There is no bladder or bowel mucosal invasion and no distant organ metastasis.
Preinvasive disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA3
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IC
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIB1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIB2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC1i
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC1ii
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC2i
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC2ii
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVC
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 7 of 50

7. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate staging option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 60-year-old woman has endometrial cancer involving the vagina. Imaging shows no involvement of pelvic or para-aortic lymph nodes or distant metastases.
Preinvasive disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA3
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IC
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIB1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIB2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC1i
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC1ii
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC2i
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC2ii
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVC
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 8 of 50

8. Question
For each scenario described below, choose the single most likely diagnosis:
- A 65 year old woman is admitted to hospital after a fall. She reports a six month history worsening balance, visual disturbance and slurred speech. On examination, there is nystagmus and difficulty walking heel-to-toe with moderate ascites palpable. MRI Brain is normal but anti-Yo antibodies are detected.
Clear cell carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Endometrial carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gestational trophoblastic disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Krukenberg tumour
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neuroendocrine carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ovarian carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ovarian strumal carcinoid tumour
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ovarian teratoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Small cell ovarian carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Struma ovarii
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Uterine sarcoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vaginal melanoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vulval carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 9 of 50

9. Question
For each scenario described below, choose the single most likely diagnosis:
- A 22 year old woman presents with confusion and seizures and is diagnosed with NMDAR-antibody encephalitis. Pelvic ultrasound shows a large right sided complex ovarian cyst with bright echos and a Rokitansky nodule.
Clear cell carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Endometrial carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gestational trophoblastic disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Krukenberg tumour
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neuroendocrine carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ovarian carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ovarian strumal carcinoid tumour
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ovarian teratoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Small cell ovarian carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Struma ovarii
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Uterine sarcoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vaginal melanoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vulval carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 10 of 50

10. Question
For each scenario described below, choose the single most likely diagnosis:
- A 25 year old woman presents with confusion, generalised bone pain and abdominal distension. Blood show acute kidney injury with Cr 180 and serum calcium of 3.0. Parathyroid hormone related protein levels are high and parthyroid hormone levels are low. Pelvic ultrasound shows a large right sided complex ovarian cyst with areas of haemorrhage within.
Clear cell carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Endometrial carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gestational trophoblastic disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Krukenberg tumour
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neuroendocrine carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ovarian carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ovarian strumal carcinoid tumour
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ovarian teratoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Small cell ovarian carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Struma ovarii
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Uterine sarcoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vaginal melanoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vulval carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 11 of 50

11. Question
For each scenario described below, choose the single most likely diagnosis:
- A 30 year old woman presents with weight loss, palpitations and tremor. Thyroid function tests show a free T4 of 38 with undetectable TSH. Pelvic ultrasound shows a large right sided complex ovarian cyst with bright echos and ascites.
Clear cell carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Endometrial carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gestational trophoblastic disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Krukenberg tumour
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neuroendocrine carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ovarian carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ovarian strumal carcinoid tumour
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ovarian teratoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Small cell ovarian carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Struma ovarii
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Uterine sarcoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vaginal melanoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vulval carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 12 of 50

12. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate staging option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 74-year-old woman is diagnosed with a vulval tumour measuring 3 cm with no invasion of adjacent structures but two inguinal lymph nodes are involved, both smaller than 5 mm.
Preinvasive disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage II
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 13 of 50

13. Question
For each scenario described below, choose the single most likely diagnosis:
- A 60 year old woman presents with fatigue, weakness and a purple-coloured peri-orbital rash. On examination, there are scaly red patches on the extensor surfaces of the interphalangeal joints of both hands.
Clear cell carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Endometrial carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Gestational trophoblastic disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Krukenberg tumour
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neuroendocrine carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ovarian carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ovarian strumal carcinoid tumour
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ovarian teratoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Small cell ovarian carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Struma ovarii
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Uterine sarcoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vaginal melanoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vulval carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 14 of 50

14. Question
For each of the following conditions, select the most appropriate management:
- A 34-year-old premenopausal woman has a grade 1 endometrioid endometrial carcinoma with less than 50% myometrial invasion and no extrauterine disease on imaging. She has completed her family but wishes to avoid a surgical menopause.
Adjuvant carboplatin–paclitaxel chemotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Adjuvant external beam radiotherapy (EBRT)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Adjuvant vaginal brachytherapy (VBT)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mismatch repair (MMR) immunohistochemistry on the tumour
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by interval surgery
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No adjuvant treatment
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Primary radiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Progestogen therapy (LNG-IUS or oral progestogen) with endometrial surveillance
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Total hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Total hysterectomy, BSO, omentectomy and pelvic ± para-aortic lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Total hysterectomy with ovarian conservation and bilateral salpingectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vaginal hysterectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 15 of 50

15. Question
For each of the following conditions, select the most appropriate management:
- A 31-year-old nulliparous woman has a grade 1 endometrioid carcinoma that appears confined to the endometrium on MRI, with no adnexal or nodal involvement. She strongly wishes to preserve her fertility.
Adjuvant carboplatin–paclitaxel chemotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Adjuvant external beam radiotherapy (EBRT)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Adjuvant vaginal brachytherapy (VBT)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mismatch repair (MMR) immunohistochemistry on the tumour
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by interval surgery
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No adjuvant treatment
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Primary radiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Progestogen therapy (LNG-IUS or oral progestogen) with endometrial surveillance
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Total hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Total hysterectomy, BSO, omentectomy and pelvic ± para-aortic lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Total hysterectomy with ovarian conservation and bilateral salpingectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vaginal hysterectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 16 of 50

16. Question
For each of the following conditions, select the most appropriate management:
- A 65-year-old woman has been surgically treated for a grade 3 endometrioid carcinoma confined to the inner half of the myometrium (stage IA) with no lymphovascular space invasion and negative nodes.
Adjuvant carboplatin–paclitaxel chemotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Adjuvant external beam radiotherapy (EBRT)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Adjuvant vaginal brachytherapy (VBT)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mismatch repair (MMR) immunohistochemistry on the tumour
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by interval surgery
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No adjuvant treatment
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Primary radiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Progestogen therapy (LNG-IUS or oral progestogen) with endometrial surveillance
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Total hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Total hysterectomy, BSO, omentectomy and pelvic ± para-aortic lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Total hysterectomy with ovarian conservation and bilateral salpingectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vaginal hysterectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 17 of 50

17. Question
For each of the following conditions, select the most appropriate management:
- A 60-year-old woman has had a total hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for endometrial cancer. The final histology shows a grade 1 endometrioid carcinoma measuring 1.9cm confined to the inner half of the myometrium with no lymphovascular space invasion (LVSI).
Adjuvant carboplatin–paclitaxel chemotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Adjuvant external beam radiotherapy (EBRT)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Adjuvant vaginal brachytherapy (VBT)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mismatch repair (MMR) immunohistochemistry on the tumour
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by interval surgery
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No adjuvant treatment
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Primary radiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Progestogen therapy (LNG-IUS or oral progestogen) with endometrial surveillance
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Total hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Total hysterectomy, BSO, omentectomy and pelvic ± para-aortic lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Total hysterectomy with ovarian conservation and bilateral salpingectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vaginal hysterectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 18 of 50

18. Question
For each of the following conditions, select the most appropriate management:
- A 66-year-old woman has stage IV endometrial carcinoma with extensive intra-abdominal disease. The MDT assessment is that primary surgery is unlikely to achieve complete macroscopic resection.
Adjuvant carboplatin–paclitaxel chemotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Adjuvant external beam radiotherapy (EBRT)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Adjuvant vaginal brachytherapy (VBT)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mismatch repair (MMR) immunohistochemistry on the tumour
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by interval surgery
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

No adjuvant treatment
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Primary radiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Progestogen therapy (LNG-IUS or oral progestogen) with endometrial surveillance
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Total hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Total hysterectomy, BSO, omentectomy and pelvic ± para-aortic lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Total hysterectomy with ovarian conservation and bilateral salpingectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vaginal hysterectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 19 of 50

19. Question
For each of the following conditions, select the most appropriate underlying genetic mutation:
- Lynch Syndrome
BRCA1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

BRCA2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

BRIP1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

MLH1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

MLH2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

MSH2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

PTEN
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

RAD51C
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

STK11
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

SMARCA4
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 20 of 50

20. Question
For each of the following conditions, select the most appropriate underlying genetic mutation:
- Muir-Torre Syndrome
BRCA1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

BRCA2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

BRIP1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

MLH1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

MLH2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

MSH2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

PTEN
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

RAD51C
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

STK11
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

SMARCA4
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 21 of 50

21. Question
For each of the following conditions, select the most appropriate underlying genetic mutation:
- Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome
BRCA1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

BRCA2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

BRIP1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

MLH1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

MLH2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

MSH2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

PTEN
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

RAD51C
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

STK11
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

SMARCA4
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 22 of 50

22. Question
For each of the following conditions, select the most appropriate underlying genetic mutation:
- Cowden Syndrome
BRCA1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

BRCA2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

BRIP1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

MLH1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

MLH2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

MSH2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

PTEN
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

RAD51C
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

STK11
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

SMARCA4
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 23 of 50

23. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate staging option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 59-year-old woman has a vulval tumour invading the lower third of the urethra and vagina. Bilateral inguinal lymph nodes are involved, and the largest metastatic lymph node is 3 cm in size with ulceration through the skin.
Preinvasive disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage II
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 24 of 50

24. Question
For each of the following conditions, select the most appropriate underlying genetic mutation:
- Small cell carcinoma of the ovary, hypercalcaemic type
BRCA1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

BRCA2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

BRIP1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

MLH1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

MLH2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

MSH2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

PTEN
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

RAD51C
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

STK11
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

SMARCA4
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 25 of 50

25. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate staging option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 48-year-old woman presents with a vulval lesion confirmed as high-grade vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN III) without stromal invasion on histology.
Preinvasive disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage II
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 26 of 50

26. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate staging option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 67-year-old woman with a vulval carcinoma has CT-confirmed pelvic lymph node involvement together with pulmonary metastases.
Preinvasive disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage II
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 27 of 50

27. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate staging option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 38-year-old woman undergoes a LLETZ for high-grade dyskaryosis. Histology shows invasive squamous carcinoma with a maximum stromal invasion depth of 2.2 mm and a horizontal extent of 9 mm. The excision margins are clear of invasive and pre-invasive disease.
Preinvasive disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB3
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIA1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIA2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 28 of 50

28. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate staging option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 52-year-old woman presents with an invasive cervical cancer measuring 3.5 cm in greatest diameter. The tumour is confined to the cervix and does not extend to adjacent structures.
Preinvasive disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB3
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIA1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIA2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 29 of 50

29. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate staging option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 60-year-old woman has a 4cm cervical tumour invading the upper two-thirds of the vagina. Imaging shows no parametrial involvement or distant metastases.
Preinvasive disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB3
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIA1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIA2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 30 of 50

30. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate staging option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with cervical cancer with invasion into the parametrium but no extension to the pelvic wall or lower third of the vagina.
Preinvasive disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IA2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IB3
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIA1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIA2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IIIC2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stage IVB
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 31 of 50

31. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate management option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 47-year-old woman with no history of previous cervical abnormalities has a smear showing glandular cells. She is postmenopausal and has a BMI of 45.
Annual cytology for 10 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy within 2 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy within in 6 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 2 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 6 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 12 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Endometrial biopsy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

High Risk HPV test
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HPV test of cure in 6 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HPV test of cure in 12 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Offer hysterectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Offer hysterectomy after MDT input.
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 3 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 6 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 1 year
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 3 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 5 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 32 of 50

32. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate management option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 42-year-old woman with a previous history of treated CIN3 has a follow-up smear that is cytology negative but still HPV positive.
Annual cytology for 10 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy within 2 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy within in 6 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 2 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 6 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 12 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Endometrial biopsy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

High Risk HPV test
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HPV test of cure in 6 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HPV test of cure in 12 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Offer hysterectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Offer hysterectomy after MDT input.
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 3 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 6 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 1 year
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 3 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 5 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 33 of 50

33. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate management option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 46-year-old woman is referred to colposcopy following an abnormal cervical smear test and has a LLETZ procedure. The histology confirms CGIN with clear excision margins. A test of cure (TOC) is taken 6 months after treatment and is positive for HPV.
Annual cytology for 10 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy within 2 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy within in 6 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 2 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 6 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 12 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Endometrial biopsy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

High Risk HPV test
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HPV test of cure in 6 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HPV test of cure in 12 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Offer hysterectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Offer hysterectomy after MDT input.
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 3 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 6 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 1 year
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 3 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 5 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 34 of 50

34. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate management option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 46-year-old woman is referred to colposcopy following an abnormal cervical smear test and has a LLETZ procedure. The histology confirms CGIN with clear excision margins. A test of cure (TOC) is taken 6 months after treatment and is negative for HPV.
Annual cytology for 10 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy within 2 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy within in 6 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 2 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 6 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 12 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Endometrial biopsy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

High Risk HPV test
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HPV test of cure in 6 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HPV test of cure in 12 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Offer hysterectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Offer hysterectomy after MDT input.
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 3 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 6 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 1 year
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 3 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 5 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 35 of 50

35. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate management option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 46-year-old woman is referred to colposcopy following an abnormal cervical smear test and has a LLETZ procedure. The histology confirms CGIN with clear excision margins.
Annual cytology for 10 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy within 2 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy within in 6 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 2 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 6 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 12 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Endometrial biopsy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

High Risk HPV test
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HPV test of cure in 6 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HPV test of cure in 12 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Offer hysterectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Offer hysterectomy after MDT input.
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 3 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 6 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 1 year
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 3 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 5 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 36 of 50

36. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate management option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 50-year-old woman undergoing routine screening is found to have an inadequate smear due to insufficient squamous cells.
Annual cytology for 10 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy within 2 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy within in 6 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 2 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 6 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 12 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Endometrial biopsy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

High Risk HPV test
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HPV test of cure in 6 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HPV test of cure in 12 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Offer hysterectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Offer hysterectomy after MDT input.
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 3 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 6 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 1 year
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 3 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 5 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 37 of 50

37. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate management option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 40-year-old woman with a history of treated CIN3 has a follow-up smear showing negative cytology and negative HPV testing.
Annual cytology for 10 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy within 2 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy within in 6 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 2 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 6 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 12 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Endometrial biopsy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

High Risk HPV test
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HPV test of cure in 6 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HPV test of cure in 12 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Offer hysterectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Offer hysterectomy after MDT input.
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 3 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 6 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 1 year
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 3 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 5 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 38 of 50

38. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate management option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 28-year-old woman’s cervical smear shows high-grade dyskaryosis (moderate). She is otherwise asymptomatic.
Annual cytology for 10 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy within 2 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy within in 6 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 2 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 6 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 12 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Endometrial biopsy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

High Risk HPV test
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HPV test of cure in 6 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HPV test of cure in 12 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Offer hysterectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Offer hysterectomy after MDT input.
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 3 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 6 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 1 year
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 3 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 5 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 39 of 50

39. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate management option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 45-year-old woman has a cervical smear showing suspected invasive squamous carcinoma.
Annual cytology for 10 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy within 2 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy within in 6 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 2 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 6 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 12 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Endometrial biopsy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

High Risk HPV test
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HPV test of cure in 6 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HPV test of cure in 12 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Offer hysterectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Offer hysterectomy after MDT input.
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 3 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 6 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 1 year
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 3 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 5 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 40 of 50

40. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate management option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 32-year-old woman attends her routine cervical screening. The cytology report shows low-grade dyskaryosis and positive high-risk HPV.
Annual cytology for 10 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy within 2 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy within in 6 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 2 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 6 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Colposcopy and Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) within 12 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Endometrial biopsy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

High Risk HPV test
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HPV test of cure in 6 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HPV test of cure in 12 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Offer hysterectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Offer hysterectomy after MDT input.
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 3 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 6 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 1 year
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 3 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 5 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 41 of 50

41. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate management option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with cervical cancer with invasion into the parametrium but no extension to the pelvic wall or lower third of the vagina..
Adjuvant chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chemotherapy with cisplatin and paclitaxel
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chemoradiotherapy with brachytherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cold knife conisation
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

LLETZ
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neoadjuvant chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pelvic exenteration
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical hysterectomy and bilateral salpingectomy with bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy with bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical trachelectomy with cerclage and bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Simple hysterectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Simple or radical trachelectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 42 of 50

42. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate management option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 35-year-old woman has a LLETZ procedure following a cervical smear test result showing high grade (severe) dyskaryosis. The histology confirms a 9mm cervical squamous cell carcinoma with 5mm depth of stromal invasion. She is nulliparous and wishes to conceive in the future.
Adjuvant chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chemotherapy with cisplatin and paclitaxel
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chemoradiotherapy with brachytherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cold knife conisation
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

LLETZ
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neoadjuvant chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pelvic exenteration
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical hysterectomy and bilateral salpingectomy with bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy with bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical trachelectomy with cerclage and bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Simple hysterectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Simple or radical trachelectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 43 of 50

43. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate management option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 60-year-old woman has a 3.8cm cervical tumour invading the upper two-thirds of the vagina. Imaging shows no parametrial involvement or distant metastases.
Adjuvant chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chemotherapy with cisplatin and paclitaxel
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chemoradiotherapy with brachytherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cold knife conisation
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

LLETZ
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neoadjuvant chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pelvic exenteration
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical hysterectomy and bilateral salpingectomy with bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy with bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical trachelectomy with cerclage and bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Simple hysterectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Simple or radical trachelectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 44 of 50

44. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate management option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 58-year-old woman presents with an invasive cervical cancer measuring 3.5 cm in greatest diameter. The tumour is confined to the cervix and does not extend to adjacent structures.
Adjuvant chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chemotherapy with cisplatin and paclitaxel
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chemoradiotherapy with brachytherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cold knife conisation
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

LLETZ
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neoadjuvant chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pelvic exenteration
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical hysterectomy and bilateral salpingectomy with bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy with bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical trachelectomy with cerclage and bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Simple hysterectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Simple or radical trachelectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 45 of 50

45. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate management option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 45-year-old woman undergoes a LLETZ for high-grade dyskaryosis. Histology shows invasive squamous carcinoma with a maximum stromal invasion depth of 2.2 mm and a horizontal extent of 9 mm. The excision margins are clear of invasive and pre-invasive disease. There is no evidence of lymphovascular invasion or nodal involvement. Her family is complete and she wishes to have definitive treatment
Adjuvant chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chemotherapy with cisplatin and paclitaxel
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chemoradiotherapy with brachytherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cold knife conisation
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

LLETZ
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neoadjuvant chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pelvic exenteration
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical hysterectomy and bilateral salpingectomy with bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy with bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical trachelectomy with cerclage and bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Simple hysterectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Simple or radical trachelectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 46 of 50

46. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate management option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 70-year-old woman is found to have a vulval tumour with distant lung metastases.
Adjuvant chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Anterior vulvectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bilateral inguinofemoral lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ipsilateral inguinofemoral lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neoadjuvant chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Palliative care
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pelvic exenteration
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Posterior vulvectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Primary chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical local excision with sentinel lymph node biopsy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical vulvectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sentinel lymph node biopsy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Wide local excision without lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 47 of 50

47. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate management option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 48-year-old woman with a history of extensive high-grade vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN III) presents with multiple Stage IB vulval tumours.
Adjuvant chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Anterior vulvectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bilateral inguinofemoral lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ipsilateral inguinofemoral lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neoadjuvant chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Palliative care
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pelvic exenteration
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Posterior vulvectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Primary chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical local excision with sentinel lymph node biopsy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical vulvectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sentinel lymph node biopsy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Wide local excision without lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 48 of 50

48. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate management option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 59-year-old woman has a vulval tumour invading the lower third of the urethra and vagina. Bilateral inguinal lymph nodes are involved, and the largest metastatic lymph node is 3 cm in size with ulceration through the skin.
Adjuvant chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Anterior vulvectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bilateral inguinofemoral lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ipsilateral inguinofemoral lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neoadjuvant chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Palliative care
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pelvic exenteration
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Posterior vulvectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Primary chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical local excision with sentinel lymph node biopsy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical vulvectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sentinel lymph node biopsy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Wide local excision without lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 49 of 50

49. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate management option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 74-year-old woman is diagnosed with a peri-clitoral vulval tumour measuring 3 cm with no invasion of adjacent structures and no involvement of regional lymph nodes.
Adjuvant chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Anterior vulvectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bilateral inguinofemoral lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ipsilateral inguinofemoral lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neoadjuvant chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Palliative care
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pelvic exenteration
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Posterior vulvectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Primary chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical local excision with sentinel lymph node biopsy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical vulvectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sentinel lymph node biopsy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Wide local excision without lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 50 of 50

50. Question
For each clinical scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate management option from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
- A 62-year-old woman presents with a bleeding ulcerated anterior right vulval lesion. On examination, there is a 1.5 cm vulval tumour confined to the vulva and wedge biopsy confirms a histological diagnosis of vulval squamous cell carcinoma with stromal invasion of 0.8 mm. There is no evidence of lymph node involvement or distant metastasis on MRI.
Adjuvant chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Anterior vulvectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Bilateral inguinofemoral lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ipsilateral inguinofemoral lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neoadjuvant chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Palliative care
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pelvic exenteration
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Posterior vulvectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Primary chemoradiotherapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical local excision with sentinel lymph node biopsy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radical vulvectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sentinel lymph node biopsy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Wide local excision without lymphadenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer
Correct

Incorrect

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