MRCOG Part 1 – Practice Exam B

Duration: 2.5 hours (150 mins)

Number of questions: 100 SBAs

Time limit: 0

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Review

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Question 1 of 100

1. Question

The sympathetic and parasympathetic system under the strong effect of hormones is responsible for the blood flow and contractions of a pregnant woman in labour. Where is the parasympathetic innervation of the uterus derived from?

L1-L2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

L1-L4
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L3-L4
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S2-S4
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T12 -L1
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 2 of 100

2. Question

Which muscle forms a sling around the rectum and is responsible for maintaining the anorectal angle, contributing to faecal continence?

Bulbospongiosus
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Coccygeus
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Iliococcygeus
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pubococcygeus
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Puborectalis
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 3 of 100

3. Question

Where does the internal oblique muscle arise from?

Latissimus dorsi
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lower eight external intercostal muscles
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lower eight ribs
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lumbar fascia
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Serratus anterior
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 4 of 100

4. Question

Which of the following vessels does the ovarian artery arises from?

Abdominal aorta
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Common iliac artery
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

External iliac artery
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Inferior mesenteric artery
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Internal iliac artery
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 5 of 100

5. Question

Which structure is responsible for androgen production in the ovarian follicle?

Antrum
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Granulosa cells
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Theca externa
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Theca interna
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Zona pellucida
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 6 of 100

6. Question

Which of the following structures lies posterior to the ovarian fossa and can be at risk during ovarian surgery?

External iliac vein
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Inferior epigastric artery
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Obturator nerve
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ureter
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Uterine artery
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 7 of 100

7. Question

Which of the following biochemical techniques is used to detect and quantify a specific DNA sequence in a sample?

Fluorescence in situ hybridisation
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Northern blotting
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Polymerase chain reaction
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Southern blotting
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Western blotting
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 8 of 100

8. Question

Which of the following inactivates clotting factors Va and VIIIa?

Antithrombin
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fibrinogen
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Kallikrein
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Protein C
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prothrombin
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 9 of 100

9. Question

In the context of enzyme kinetics, what does Km represent?

Enzyme concentration
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Inhibition constant
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Maximum velocity of the reaction
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Specificity of the enzyme
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Substrate concentration at half-maximal velocity
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Correct

Incorrect

Question 10 of 100

10. Question

What are the target blood glucose ranges for pregnant women with gestational diabetes?

Fasting: less than 5.0 mmol/L, 1 hour after meals 7.8 mmol/L
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fasting: less than 5.3 mmol/L, 1 hour after meals 7.8 mmol/L
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fasting: less than 5.6 mmol/L, 1 hour after meals 7.8 mmol/L
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Fasting: less than 5.0 mmol/L, 2 hour after meals 6.4 mmol/L
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Fasting: less than 5.3 mmol/L, 2 hour after meals 7.8 mmol/L
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 11 of 100

11. Question

What is the primary role of insulin in glucose metabolism?

Breakdown of glycogen
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Inhibition of glycolysis
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Promotion of glucose uptake by cells
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Regulation of lipid metabolism
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stimulation of gluconeogenesis
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 12 of 100

12. Question

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of facilitated diffusion?

Involvement of ion pumps
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Movement of substances against their concentration gradient
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Passage through phospholipid membrane
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Requirement of energy input
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Utilization of carrier proteins
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Correct

Incorrect

Question 13 of 100

13. Question

Which of the following factors is most likely to affect sperm count?

Age
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Alcohol consumption
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Diabetes mellitus
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Obesity
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Smoking
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 14 of 100

14. Question

Which of the following structures is primarily derived from the neural crest?

Cardiac muscle
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Epithelial lining of the gut
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Facial bones
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lungs
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Skeletal muscles
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Correct

Incorrect

Question 15 of 100

15. Question

At what stage of embryonic development do the paramesonephric ducts form?

During gastrulation
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

During the first trimester
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

During the second trimester
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During the third week of gestation
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During the fourth week of gestation
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Question 16 of 100

16. Question

From which embryonic layer does the heart primarily develop?

Endoderm
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Ectoderm
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Mesoderm
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Neuroectoderm
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Splanchnic mesoderm
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Incorrect

Question 17 of 100

17. Question

At which stage of embryonic development does the blastocyst form?

Cleavage stage
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Fertilization
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Gastrulation
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Morula stage
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Neurulation
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Incorrect

Question 18 of 100

18. Question

At what stage of gestation do the gonads begin to differentiate?

4 weeks
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6 weeks
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8 weeks
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10 weeks
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12 weeks
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Incorrect

Question 19 of 100

19. Question

In a clinical study evaluating blood pressure levels, the mean systolic blood pressure of 400 participants is reported with a standard deviation of 40 mmHg. What is the standard error of the mean (SEM)?

1
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2
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10
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20
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100
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Correct

Incorrect

Question 20 of 100

20. Question

A researcher wants to compare the median systolic blood pressure between two independent groups of pregnant women—one group with gestational diabetes and another without. The data is not normally distributed. Which non-parametric statistical test is most appropriate?

Chi-square test
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Kruskal-Wallis test
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Mann-Whitney U test
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Paired t-test
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Wilcoxon signed-rank test
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Correct

Incorrect

Question 21 of 100

21. Question

A researcher is interested in studying a rare complication of pregnancy and wants to compare women with the complication to those without to identify potential risk factors. Which study design is most suitable?

Case-control study
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Case series
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Cohort study
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Cross-sectional study
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Randomized controlled trial
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Question 22 of 100

22. Question

A diagnostic test for gestational diabetes has a sensitivity of 75% and a specificity of 85%. What is the negative likelihood ratio (LR-)?

0.18
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0.29
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0.88
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1.76
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2.0
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Correct

Incorrect

Question 23 of 100

23. Question

If the Receiver Operating Characteristic (ROC) curve of a diagnostic test is close to the diagonal line, what does it indicate about the test’s performance?

Excellent discrimination ability
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High false positive rate
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No better than random chance
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Perfect sensitivity and specificity
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Zero false negative rate
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Question 24 of 100

24. Question

In a study of 200 patients, a new test for diagnosing pre-eclampsia correctly identifies 80 of 100 patients with the disease (true positives) and correctly identifies 90 of 100 patients without the disease (true negatives). What is the sensitivity of the test?

40%
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60%
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70%
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80%
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90%
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Incorrect

Question 25 of 100

25. Question

A 25 year old woman presents as she and her partner have being trying to conceive for one year without success. Her periods have become increasingly irregular and she has not had a period for the last 4 months. Her BMI is 16 and a urinary pregnancy test is negative. What is the most appropriate next investigation?

Day 2-5 FSH and LH
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Midluteal progesterone
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Prolactin
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Serum testosterone
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Transvaginal ultrasound of pelvis
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Correct

Incorrect

Question 26 of 100

26. Question

Which laboratory finding is commonly associated with Addison’s disease?

Hypercalcaemia
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Hyperkalaemia
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Hypoglycaemia
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Hyponatraemia
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All of the above
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Incorrect

Question 27 of 100

27. Question

What is the primary site of testosterone production in males?

Adrenal glands
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Anterior pituitary gland
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Leydig cells
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Posterior pituitary gland
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Sertoli cells
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Correct

Incorrect

Question 28 of 100

28. Question

What is the primary action of angiotensin II in the body?

Decreases aldosterone secretion
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Increases blood vessel dilation
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Increases blood pressure
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Reduces sympathetic nervous system activity
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Stimulates insulin release
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Incorrect

Question 29 of 100

29. Question

What effect does growth hormone have on glucose metabolism?

Decreases blood glucose levels
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Decreases insulin sensitivity
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Increases glucose uptake by tissues
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Increases insulin secretion
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Increases the rate of glycolysis
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Incorrect

Question 30 of 100

30. Question

Which of the following treatments is commonly used for central diabetes insipidus?

Desmopressin
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Dexamethasone
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Fludrocortisone
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Frusemide
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Prednisone
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Incorrect

Question 31 of 100

31. Question

A 28-year-old woman presents with recurrent pregnancy loss in the first trimester. What is the most common fetal chromosomal abnormality associated with recurrent early pregnancy loss?

Monosomy
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Polyploidy
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Reciprocal translocation
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Robertsonian translocation
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Trisomy
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Question 32 of 100

32. Question

A 32 year old primiparous woman is referred from her anomaly scan at 20 weeks gestation with abnormal findings of a strawberry shaped head, congenital diaphragmatic hernia, spina bifida and bilateral talipes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Triploidy
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Trisomy 13
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Trisomy 18
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Trisomy 21
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Turner's Syndrome
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Incorrect

Question 33 of 100

33. Question

Which of the following is not an exclusion criteria for non-invasive prenatal testing?

Blood transfusion within previous 4 months
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Dichorionic twin pregnancy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Maternal T21 mosaicism
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Renal transplant
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Vanished twin pregnancy
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Incorrect

Question 34 of 100

34. Question

A 22 year woman books for antenatal care at 8 weeks gestation. She and her partner are both sickle cell trait carriers and her booking bloods show HbsAG +ve, AntiHBc +ve, HBsAb -ve with viral load of 9log₁₀. She wishes to have prenatal diagnosis to ascertain the sickle cell status of her pregnancy. What is the most appropriate option?

Amniocentesis at 14+0
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Amniocentesis at 15+0
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Chorionic villous sampling at 9+6
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Chorionic villous sampling at 10+6
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Chorionic villous sampling at 11+6
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Incorrect

Question 35 of 100

35. Question

A woman with a history of recurrent pregnancy loss is found to have a balanced translocation involving chromosomes 11 and 22. What is the risk of transmitting an unbalanced translocation to her offspring?

0%
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25%
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50%
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75%
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100%
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Incorrect

Question 36 of 100

36. Question

A newborn exhibits hypotonia, poor feeding, and a “floppy” appearance. Genetic testing reveals a deletion on the long arm of chromosome 15. What syndrome is most likely present?

Angelman syndrome
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Down syndrome
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Fragile X syndrome
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Prader-Willi syndrome
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Turner syndrome
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Correct

Incorrect

Question 37 of 100

37. Question

Which of the following explains the decrease in systemic vascular resistance during pregnancy?

Decrease in progesterone
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increase in circulating aldosterone
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increased blood viscosity
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Increased cardiac contractility
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increased production of nitric oxide
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 38 of 100

38. Question

What is the effect of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) on maternal thyroid function during early pregnancy?

Decreases free T3 levels
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Decreases total T4 levels
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Increases free T4 levels and suppresses TSH
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stimulates TSH production
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Suppresses thyroid hormone production
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 39 of 100

39. Question

Which hormone facilitates the ejection of milk from the mammary glands during breastfeeding?

Cortisol
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oestrogen
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oxytocin
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Progesterone
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prolactin
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 40 of 100

40. Question

Which fatty acid is particularly important for fetal brain development during pregnancy?

Arachidonic acid
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Linoleic acid
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Oleic acid
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Stearic acid
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Correct

Incorrect

Question 41 of 100

41. Question

What is the primary form of haemoglobin found in the fetus?

Haemoglobin A (HbA)
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Haemoglobin A2 (HbA2)
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Haemoglobin F (HbF)
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Haemoglobin S (HbS)
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Methaemoglobin
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Correct

Incorrect

Question 42 of 100

42. Question

What is the primary site of calcium absorption in the body?

Colon
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Duodenum
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ileum
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Liver
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stomach
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 43 of 100

43. Question

What is the primary effect of increasing the frequency of ultrasound waves?

Decreased penetration depth
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Decreased resolution
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Increased scattering
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Increased transmission
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No effect on image quality
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Incorrect

Question 44 of 100

44. Question

Which of the following factors primarily influences the contrast in MRI images?

Magnetic field strength
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Patient hydration status
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radiofrequency pulse sequence
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tissue temperature
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ultrasound frequency
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 45 of 100

45. Question

What is the primary mechanism by which ionizing radiation causes damage to cancer cells?

Activation of the immune system
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Induction of apoptosis
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Production of reactive oxygen species
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stimulation of cell proliferation
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Suppression of DNA repair mechanisms
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Correct

Incorrect

Question 46 of 100

46. Question

What is the primary principle behind the use of diathermy in medical treatment?

Absorption of light energy
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Conversion of electromagnetic energy to thermal energy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Induction of electrical currents in tissue
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mechanical vibration of tissue
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Radiation of infrared energy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 47 of 100

47. Question

Which of the following ECG changes is associated with hypokalaemia?

Decreased heart rate
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Increased U wave amplitude
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Peaked T waves
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

ST segment elevation
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Widened QRS complex
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 48 of 100

48. Question

Which fetal biometric measurement is most accurate for estimating gestational age during the first trimester?

Abdominal circumference (AC)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Biparietal diameter (BPD)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Crown-rump length (CRL)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Femur length (FL)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Head circumference (HC)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 49 of 100

49. Question

A 36 year old primiparous woman is seen in antenatal clinic at 28 weeks gestation. She is known to have essential hypertension and is taking methyldopa 250mg BD. Her blood pressure is 128/76 and her urine dip is negative. She has routine antenatal blood tests and is found to be anaemic.

Investigation Result Normal Range

Haemoglobin 90 110 – 140 g/L

White cell count 10 x 10⁹/L 6 – 16 x 10⁹/L

Platelets 376 x 10⁹/L 150-400 x 10⁹/L

MCV 94 fL 83-101 fL

Reticulocytes 6% 0.5-2.5%

Serum Iron 28 11-32 mol/L

Ferritin 150 12-200mg/L

TIBC 60 42-80mol/L

Vitamin B12 190 >150mg/L

Folate 6 >2mg/L

Sodium 140 mmol/L 130 – 140 mmol/L

Potassium 4.1 mmol/L 3.3 – 5.1 mmol/L

Urea 3.8 mmol/L 2.2 – 4.3 mmol/L

Creatinine 50 mmol/L 34 – 82 mmol/L

ALT 8 IU/L 6 – 32 IU/L

ALP 380 IU/L 30 – 300 IU/L

Bilirubin 45 mmol/L 3 – 14 mmol/L

Albumin 31 g/L 28 – 37 g/L

Uric acid 0.24 mmol/L 0.14 – 0.38 mmol/L

What is the likely diagnosis?

Aplastic anaemia
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Haemolytic anaemia
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HELLP syndrome
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Iron deficiency anaemia
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Thalassaemia trait
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 50 of 100

50. Question

A 65 year old woman presents with symptoms of lower abdominal pain, fatigue and persistent bloating. She is worried that she has developed irritable bowel syndrome. Abdominal and pelvic examination is unremarkable. She has some blood tests including a CA-125. The results are shown below:

Result Normal Range

Hb 117 115 – 165 g/L

WCC 5.6 3.6 – 11.0 x 10⁹/L

Plts 299 140 – 400 x 10⁹/L

MCV 95.0 80 – 100 fL

MCH 0.40 0.37 – 0.47L/L

Na 140 133 – 146 mmol/L

K 4.3 3.5 – 5.3 mmol/L

Ur 3.8 2.5 – 7.8 mmol/L

Cr 76 45 – 84 mmol/L

CA-125 250 0 – 35 IU/ml

TSH 1.6 0.4 – 4.0 mU/L

Free T4 14 9 – 24 pmol/L

What is the most appropriate next management?

Abdominal and pelvic CT scan
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Abdominal and pelvic MRI scan
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Abdominal ultrasound scan
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Abdominal and pelvic ultrasound scan
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pelvic ultrasound scan
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Correct

Incorrect

Question 51 of 100

51. Question

A 19 year old attends with secondary amenorrhoea for 6 months. She is nulliparous with a BMI of 15.1 and her periods started at the age of 12 years old and were previously regular. She is currently in her first year at university studying medicine and is not sexually active. She reports that she has become very health conscious in the past year, eating a vegan diet and has lost 10kg of weight. Her blood test results are shown below:

FSH – 1.1                     (1.0-11.0 IU/L)

LH – 0.6                       (0.5-14.5 IU/L)

Oestradiol – 49           (70-600 pmol/L)

Testosterone – 1.3      (0.8-3.1 nmol/L)

Prolactin – 600            (90-520 mu/L)

TSH – 1.5                     (0.5-7.0 mu/L)

Free T4 – 20                (11-23 pmol/L)

What is the likely diagnosis?

Anorexia nervosa
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Excessive exercise
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Iron deficiency anaemia
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pregnancy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stress
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 52 of 100

52. Question

A 28-year-old woman with severe postpartum sepsis has the following ABG: pH 7.25, pCO₂ 25 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 15 mmol/L.

Which acid-base disturbance is present?

Compensated metabolic acidosis
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Compensated metabolic alkalosis
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Metabolic acidosis
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Metabolic alkalosis
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Respiratory acidosis
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Correct

Incorrect

Question 53 of 100

53. Question

A 30-year-old primigravida presents at 34 weeks gestation with new-onset hypertension of 160/105 mmHg and proteinuria of 2+ on dipstick. Blood tests reveal platelets 160 × 10⁹/L (reference: 150-400 × 10⁹/L) and ALT 150 U/L (reference: 7-56 U/L). What is the most likely diagnosis?

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Chronic hypertension
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

HELLP syndrome
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Normal pregnancy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Severe pre-eclampsia
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 54 of 100

54. Question

A 60-year-old woman undergoes urodynamic testing. During the voiding phase, there is a weak and prolonged flow, with a maximum flow rate (Qmax) of 5 mL/sec and elevated detrusor pressure. The post-void residual volume is 150 mL. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Bladder outlet obstruction
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Detrusor overactivity
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Functional incontinence
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neurogenic bladder
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stress urinary incontinence
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 55 of 100

55. Question

Which of the following is a component of adaptive immunity?

Antigen presenting cells
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Basophils
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Macrophages
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mast cells
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neutrophils
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 56 of 100

56. Question

What type of vaccine is the tetanus vaccination?

Conjugated
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Inactivated
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Live-attenuated
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Subunit
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Toxoid
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 57 of 100

57. Question

Which of the following immunosuppressants is a folate analogue?

Azathioprine
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cyclophosphamide
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cyclosporin
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Methotrexate
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mycophenolate
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 58 of 100

58. Question

Which of the following functions as an antigen receptor on B cells that have not been exposed to antigens?

IgA
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

IgD
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

IgE
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

IgG
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

IgM
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 59 of 100

59. Question

Which of the following complement components forms the membrane attack complex (MAC) in the final step of complement activation?

C1q
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

C3b
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

C5b
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

C7
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

C9
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 60 of 100

60. Question

Which cytokine is primarily responsible for mediating the acute phase response and inducing fever?

Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Interleukin-10 (IL-10)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tumour necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 61 of 100

61. Question

A 20 year old woman attends Gynaecology clinic with symptoms of profuse vaginal discharge which she describes as offensive. A high vaginal swab is taken and sent for analysis. Which of the following meets the diagnostic criteria for diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis?

Clue cells on microscopy of wet mount
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Lactobacillus morphotypes predominate
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mixed flora with some Lactobacilli present, but Gardnerella or Mobiluncus morphotypes also present
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Predominantly Gardnerella and/or Mobiluncus morphotypes with few Lactobacilli
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Pseudohyphae and spores with few Lactobacilli
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 62 of 100

62. Question

A 20 year old woman presents to her local sexual health clinic with symptoms of profuse vaginal discharge which she describes as offensive. On examination, there is profuse malodorous grey vaginal discharge but the cervix appears normal. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Intramuscular ceftriaxone 1g single dose
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oral doxycycline 100mg BD for 7 days
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oral erythromycin 500mg BD for 7 days
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oral fluconazole 150mg single dose
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oral metronidazole 400mg BD for 7 days
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 63 of 100

63. Question

A 28 year old woman is referred to hospital urgently by her GP at 26 weeks gestation in her second pregnancy with suspected bacterial sepsis.Blood cultures are taken and she is treated with broad spectrum antibiotics. She is subsequently diagnosed with invasive Group A streptococcal infection. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Group A streptococcal infection?

Close household contacts of women with group A streptococcal infection should be warned to seek medical attention should symptoms develop
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Healthcare workers who have been exposed to respiratory secretions of women with group A streptococcal infection do not require antibiotic prophylaxis.
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Invasive group A streptococcal infections are notifiable
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

When a mother has been found to have invasive group A streptococcal infection in the peripartum period, the neonatologist should be informed and prophylactic antibiotics administered to the baby.
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Women diagnosed with group A Streptococcus sepsis should be isolated in a single room with en suite facilities to minimise the risk of spread to other women
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 64 of 100

64. Question

Which of the following is a spirochaete bacteria?

Borrelia burgdorferi
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Haemophilus influenzae
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Moraxella catarrhalis
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vibrio cholerae
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 65 of 100

65. Question

Which virus is associated with the formation of Negri bodies?

Adenovirus
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cytomegalovirus
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Measles
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Rabies
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Varicella Zoster virus
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 66 of 100

66. Question

A 30 year old woman presents at 28 weeks gestation in her first pregnancy having recently returned from a trip to visit family in Nigeria where she did not take malaria prophylaxis. She reports episodes of high fever associated with rigors, arthralgia and dark coloured urine. Thick and thin blood films confirm the presence of malaria parasitaemia and Plasmodium falciparum malaria rapid diagnostic test is positive.She is found to be hypoglycaemic, jaundiced and severely anaemic and appears confused and disorientated. What is the most appropriate treatment?

IV artesunate
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

IV quinine
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oral artesunate
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oral chloroquine
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oral quinine and oral clindamycin
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 67 of 100

67. Question

Which of the following is an example of caseous necrosis?

Acute pancreatitis
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cerebral infarction
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Clostridial infection
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Myocardial infarction
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tuberculous lympadenitis
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 68 of 100

68. Question

Which tumour marker is primarily elevated in testicular germ cell tumours?

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cancer antigen 125 (CA-125)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 69 of 100

69. Question

Which type of gynaecological cancer is often linked to the presence of a hydatidiform mole?

Cervical cancer
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Choriocarcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Endometrial cancer
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ovarian cancer
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Placental site trophoblastic tumour
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 70 of 100

70. Question

Which type of glomerulonephritis is characterized by segmental scarring of some glomeruli and is often associated with hypertension and nephrotic syndrome?

Chronic glomerulonephritis
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Goodpasture syndrome
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Membranous nephropathy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Minimal change disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 71 of 100

71. Question

Which histological finding is characteristic of a complete hydatidiform mole?

Atypical squamous cells
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Diffuse trophoblastic proliferation
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fetal tissue present
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Necrosis of placental tissue
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Presence of trophoblastic giant cells
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 72 of 100

72. Question

Which type of uterine sarcoma is characterized by the presence of malignant smooth muscle cells?

Endometrial stromal sarcoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Leiomyosarcoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mixed müllerian tumour
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Rhabdomyosarcoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sarcomatoid carcinoma
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 73 of 100

73. Question

Which of the following is not a side effect of antimuscarinic treatment for overactive bladder?

Excessive salivation
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Photophobia
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tachycardia
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Visual disturbances
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Urinary retention
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 74 of 100

74. Question

What is the mechanism of action of the levonorgestrel-releasing intra-uterine system (LNG-IUS)?

Inhibition of fertilization
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Inhibition of implantation
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Inhibition of ovulation
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Thickening of cervical mucus
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Thinning of endometrium
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 75 of 100

75. Question

A 60-year-old woman is prescribed bisphosphonate therapy for osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should be emphasized to prevent adverse effects?

Crush the tablet and mix it with water
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stand upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Take the medication just before bedtime
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Take the medication on an empty stomach
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Take the medication with a full glass of milk
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 76 of 100

76. Question

A 42-year-old woman is prescribed mifepristone for medical termination of pregnancy. What is the primary mechanism of action of mifepristone?

Enhancement of cervical ripening
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Inhibition of progesterone receptors
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Stimulation of uterine contractions
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Suppression of luteinizing hormone (LH)
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 77 of 100

77. Question

What is the mechanism of action of labetalol?

ACE inhibitor
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Angiotensin receptor blocker
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Beta blocker
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Calcium channel blocker
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Loop diuretic
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 78 of 100

78. Question

Which of the following is used to treat nocturia?

Desmopressin
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Duloxetine
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fluoxetine
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mirabegron
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tolterodine
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 79 of 100

79. Question

A 42 year old primigravid woman is booked for induction of labour at 40 weeks gestation. Which of the following methods are not used for induction of labour?

Amniotomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Carboprost
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Misoprostol
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oxytocin
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Prostaglandin E2
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 80 of 100

80. Question

A woman with a previous Caesarean section is admitted in early labour. Which of the following is associated with a lower chance of successful vaginal birth after previous Caesarean?

BMI of 28
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Caucasian ethnicity
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Infant birthweight of 4.5kg
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Previous Caesarean for failed instrumental delivery
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Previous vaginal delivery
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 81 of 100

81. Question

A 30 year old woman books for antenatal care at 8 weeks gestation in her second pregnancy. She reports that she was told after her first pregnancy that she would need screening for gestational diabetes in any future pregnancies. Which of the following is not a risk factor for gestational diabetes?

BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Family history of diabetes in first degree relative
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

IVF pregnancy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Previous gestational diabetes
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

South Asian origin
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 82 of 100

82. Question

A 28 year old woman is admitted at 26 weeks gestation in her second pregnancy with suspected bacterial sepsis. Which of the following clinical features are not suggestive of sepsis?

Abdominal pain
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Diarrhoea and vomiting
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fever
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Joint pain
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Rash
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 83 of 100

83. Question

A 26 year old woman books for antenatal care at 8 weeks gestation. She requests the meningococcal vaccination as she has been told that she is at high risk of meningococcal disease. Which of the following is not considered high risk of meningococcal disease?

Chronic kidney disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Complement deficiency
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Previous splenectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Sickle cell disease
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

University student under 25 years old
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 84 of 100

84. Question

A 38 year old woman presents to hospital at 38 weeks gestation in her first pregnancy with painful contractions. She has been under consultant led care during her pregnancy as it is an IVF pregnancy and the placenta was noted to have a velamentous cord insertion at her anomaly ultrasound scan. During a vaginal examination, she is found to be 4cm dilated and the fetal membranes rupture spontaneously. Fresh vaginal bleeding is noted and the CTG becomes abnormal with a sinusoidal fetal heart rate pattern. What is the most appropriate management?

Category 1 emergency Caesarean section
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Category 2 emergency Caesarean section
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Category 3 emergency Caesarean section
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Fetal blood sampling
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Operative vaginal delivery
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 85 of 100

85. Question

A 35 year old woman attends her GP to book for antenatal care in her second pregnancy. Her first baby was delivered by emergency Caesarean section and she wishes to aim for a vaginal birth after Caesarean (VBAC). Which of the following factors is not associated with an increased risk of unsuccessful VBAC?

BMI of 40
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Induction of labour
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Infant birthweight more than 4kg
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Previous Caesarean for fetal malpresentation
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Previous Caesarean for labour dystocia
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 86 of 100

86. Question

A 30 year old woman presents at 28 weeks gestation as her nephew has recently had chicken pox and she has now developed a vesicular rash in the last 24 hours. On examination, the rash is consistent with chicken pox but she is otherwise systemically well. She is noted to be a heavy smoker and reports that she has noticed a worsening cough over the last 24 hours. What is the most appropriate management?

Administer Varicella-Zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) immediately
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Admit to hospital for further assessment
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Commence oral aciclovir immediately
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Commence oral acyclovir if any signs of severe chickenpox develop
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Reassure patient that she is not infectious once the rash has appeared
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 87 of 100

87. Question

You are asked to review a 70 year old patient on the Gynaecology Ward who had a vaginal hysterectomy yesterday with an estimated blood loss of 250ml. Her pre-operative haemoglobin was 109. On examination, the woman is complaining of severe abdominal pain but there is no evidence of peritonism. Her pulse is 120, her blood pressure is 80/50. She is afebrile and her respiratory rate and oxygen saturations are normal. What is the most appropriate investigation?

Arterial blood gas
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

CT Abdomen Pelvis
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Repeat full blood count
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Speculum examination
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ultrasound scan of abdomen and pelvis
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 88 of 100

88. Question

A 71 year old woman is being investigated for a recent change in bowel habit and undergoes a CT Colon with contrast. The CT is reported as showing no obvious bowel pathology but comments that there is evidence of a thickened endometrium. You contact the patient who reports that she has not had any post-menopausal bleeding and is otherwise asymptomatic. A transvaginal pelvic ultrasound scan is arranged which shows an anteverted uterus with cystic appearance of the endometrium measuring 12mm in thickness. What is the next most appropriate management?

Cervical smear
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Outpatient endometrial sampling
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Reassure patient
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Routine referral for diagnostic hysteroscopy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Urgent “2-week-wait” referral for diagnostic hysteroscopy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 89 of 100

89. Question

A 24 year old woman presents with persistent lower abdominal pain which is relieved by opening her bowels. You are the on call gynaecology SHO and arrange a transvaginal ultrasound scan which is reported as follows:

Normal appearance of anteverted uterus with regular endometrium measuring 4mm. Complex septated left ovarian cyst measuring 75 x 51 x 68 mm in diameter. Normal right ovary. No free fluid.

What is the next appropriate management?

CA125
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Reassure patient
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Repeat ultrasound scan in 3 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Repeat ultrasound scan in 6 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Urgent 'Two week wait' referral for laparoscopic cystectomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 90 of 100

90. Question

A 33-year-old lady attends for her first cervical smear. She has previously failed to attend her appointments for her smear test due to fear. Her mother died at a young age from cervical cancer. The examination was difficult, and the report suggests an inadequate result. What is the most appropriate management?

Colposcopy and LLETZ in 2 weeks
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Endometrial biopsy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 3 months
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 1 year
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Recall screening in 3 years
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 91 of 100

91. Question

Which of the following is not a risk factor for third or fourth degree perineal tears?

Forceps delivery with episiotomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Nulliparity
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Occipito-posterior position
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Shoulder dystocia
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Ventouse delivery with episiotomy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 92 of 100

92. Question

Which of the following is not a pharmacological treatment for overactive bladder?

Darifenacin
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Duloxetine
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mirabegron
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oxybutynin
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tolterodine
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 93 of 100

93. Question

You are the Gynaecology SHO in pre-operative assessment clinic and you review a patient booked for a vaginal hysterectomy and pelvic floor repair. She asks about whether the hospital offers enhanced recovery as she has read about it on the Internet. Which of the following statements about enhanced recovery is incorrect?

Enhanced recovery is associated with a shorter hospital stay
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Minimal access surgical techniques should be used where possible
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

On the day of surgery, patients should not drink for six hours prior to anaesthetic
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Patients are discharged when they are mobilising, can control their pain by oral analgesia, passing flatus and are able to eat and drink
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Urinary catheters should be removed as soon as possible
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 94 of 100

94. Question

A 38 year old woman presents with increasingly heavy periods for the past six months. She reports that her menstrual cycles are approximately 30 days in length with prolonged heavy bleeding for 10-14 days where she has to use dual protection of tampons and sanitary towels. Physical examination is normal and a full blood count shows a normal haemoglobin. You discuss treatment options with her and she expresses a wish to have a treatment that is also an effective contraceptive but she has had a poor experience with a coil in the past. What is the most appropriate management?

Combined oral contraceptive pill
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Injectable long-acting progestogens
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insertion of Mirena LNG-IUS
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oral progestogens
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Tranexamic acid
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 95 of 100

95. Question

A 23 year old presents with secondary amenorrhoea for 6 months. She is nulliparous with a BMI of 36 and her periods have always been irregular with 55-60 day cycles on average. Several pregnancy tests have all been negative. Transvaginal ultrasound shows evidence of polycystic ovaries and a thickened cystic endometrium measuring 36mm. Further investigations including hormone profile, testosterone, thyroid function and prolactin are normal. A diagnosis of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is made. What is the most appropriate management?

Advise weight loss
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Endometrial biopsy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Insertion of Mirena LNG-IUS
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oral glucose tolerance test
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Oral progestogens
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 96 of 100

96. Question

A 50-year-old woman is seen in the Urogynaecology clinic complaining of frequency of micturition, getting up at night to pass urine and feeling urgency when she needs to pass urine. She has previously had one caesarean section. Her periods are irregular, the last period being 6 months ago, and she suffers with constipation. She was examined in clinic and her BMI was 26. On pelvic examination she had no evidence of a prolapse and no urine leakage was demonstrated on coughing in the supine position. Her GP prescribed her Oxybutynin for overactive bladder, but this made her constipation worse. What is the appropriate next line of treatment for this patient?

Botulin Toxin A
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mirabegron
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Percutaneous Tibial Nerve Stimulation
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Supervised pelvic floor physiotherapy and bladder training
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Vaginal oestrogen therapy
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 97 of 100

97. Question

A 16-year-old girl presents to the gynaecology clinic with primary amenorrhoea and delayed pubertal development. She is an elite athlete who has trained daily since the age of 11. Her body mass index (BMI) of 16 and she has a fear of gaining weight. On clinical examination she has sparsity of pubic hair and a normal genital examination. What is the likely diagnosis?

Anorexia Nervosa
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Kallman Syndrome
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser Syndrome
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Turner Syndrome
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 98 of 100

98. Question

A woman has an emergency Caesarean section for placental abruption and has a massive postpartum haemorrhage of 3 litres. Emergency blood products are requested for immediate transfusion. Which of the following specifications is not required for emergency blood products issued for obstetric patients?

ABO compatible
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cytomegalovirus negative
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Cross-matching
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Kell negative
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Rhesus D compatible
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 99 of 100

99. Question

Which of the following is not a known cause of secondary postpartum haemorrhage?

Endometritis
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Retained placenta
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Subinvolution of the placental site
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Succenturiate placenta
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Placenta accreta
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

Question 100 of 100

100. Question

A 24-year old presents asking for contraceptive advice. She is taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and has forgotten to take her last two pills. She is currently on Day 5 of her pill packet and has had unprotected sexual intercourse in the last 24 hours. What is the most appropriate advice?

Take the most recent missed pill and continue taking until the next pill-free interval
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Take the most recent missed pill and omit the next pill-free interval
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Take the most recent missed pill and use condoms for the next 7 days
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Take the most recent missed pill and use emergency contraception
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Take the most recent missed pill, use emergency contraception and use condoms for the next 7 days
Correct Incorrect Correct answer

Correct

Incorrect

*Investigation*	*Result*	*Normal Range*
Haemoglobin	90	110 – 140 g/L
White cell count	10 x 10⁹/L	6 – 16 x 10⁹/L
Platelets	376 x 10⁹/L	150-400 x 10⁹/L
MCV	94 fL	83-101 fL
Reticulocytes	6%	0.5-2.5%
Serum Iron	28	11-32 mol/L
Ferritin	150	12-200mg/L
TIBC	60	42-80mol/L
Vitamin B12	190	>150mg/L
Folate	6	>2mg/L
Sodium	140 mmol/L	130 – 140 mmol/L
Potassium	4.1 mmol/L	3.3 – 5.1 mmol/L
Urea	3.8 mmol/L	2.2 – 4.3 mmol/L
Creatinine	50 mmol/L	34 – 82 mmol/L
ALT	8 IU/L	6 – 32 IU/L
ALP	380 IU/L	30 – 300 IU/L
Bilirubin	45 mmol/L	3 – 14 mmol/L
Albumin	31 g/L	28 – 37 g/L
Uric acid	0.24 mmol/L	0.14 – 0.38 mmol/L

	Result	Normal Range
Hb	117	115 – 165 g/L
WCC	5.6	3.6 – 11.0 x 10⁹/L
Plts	299	140 – 400 x 10⁹/L
MCV	95.0	80 – 100 fL
MCH	0.40	0.37 – 0.47L/L
Na	140	133 – 146 mmol/L
K	4.3	3.5 – 5.3 mmol/L
Ur	3.8	2.5 – 7.8 mmol/L
Cr	76	45 – 84 mmol/L
CA-125	250	0 – 35 IU/ml
TSH	1.6	0.4 – 4.0 mU/L
Free T4	14	9 – 24 pmol/L